/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
In the 19th and 20th centuries, why did capital punishment move from public to private execution in Europe/North America? NSFW
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A man who was angry that the Unification Church bankrupted his mother murdered the Prime Minister of Japan. Six months later, Japan responded by cracking down on... the UC. Have there ever been other assassinations in history where society collectively agreed, "yeah, he's kinda got a point"?
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In school I learned that the Nuremberg rallies were held in the evening because the Nahzees discovered that people were more impressionable after work when they were tired. Are there credible sources to confirm this being a calculated move?
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